Q: Consider this axiom: "The end does not justify the ...Consider this axiom: "The end does not justify the means". How do you metaphysically prove this axiom? Can it be proved?
I don't know what type of proof you're looking for but if you believe this then you're saying two things;
1) throw out all the rules that may lead to a different conclusion, and
2) every individual has the right to decide what the end is.,
To me, this logic proves that this is not an axioum, merely a syaing employed by those who want to do something and this is the only justification they can come up with.
Question for you, since an axiom is by definition a "universally recognized truth" who decides what is an axiom vs an old saying?
A line from a Neil Diamond song that has stuck with me through the years is "gettin lost is worth the comin home". Not exactly the same as "the end justifies the means", but it reminded me of it. Your question is about "the end does NOT justify the means" which is different from how I've heard that phrase.
I sort of like the Neil Diamond line better, because it's about looking for the good in everything, where as justifying the means is more about having a ready excuse for an otherwise inapproprite action.
I think in either case its a value judgment, and therefore unprovable, either that the end does, or does not, justify the means. Sometimes the "it does" saying fits, like in the case of the pain of childbirth. Sometimes the "does NOT" version fits, like "sure, I abused him, but he turned out alright". Therefore I think neither form is always consistently correct.
Other people asked questions on similar topics, check out the answers they received:
Other people asked questions on various topics, and are still waiting for answer. Would be great if you can take a sec and answer them